The Arab Mind for the literate and inqusitive.... 5594


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L.S., You actually raised a point that I've been wondering about for some time: There are some inconsistencies between the Old Testament and the New Testament, as in: the New testament contradicts the old one on a number of points, am I right? If so, what does this mean? Did God simply lie to the Jews, or did he change his mind? And how can we be sure that he didn't lie again, or that he isn't going to change his mind again? Note that it is entirely possible that this question is based on a faulty premise. If so, please point it out. Yours, Martin Holterman

I believe it is called administrations of grace. Thus Israel was under the Torah. But before Moses, there was no Torah. And after Jesus, there was no need of "rules" for those who were under grace. Same G*D, just different ways of administration, given the wisdom and understanding of those being administered to.

Think of it another way, little kids have far different rules than teenagers who have more restrictions than adults. It is a matter of maturity and wisdom plus understanding.

--- "If ye love wealth better than liberty ... servitude better than ... freedom, go home from us in peace. We ask not your counsel or your arms ... May your chains set lightly upon you. May posterity forget that ye were our countrymen." - Samuel Adams

The Arab Mind for the literate and inqusitive.... 5595
Shmaryahu b. Chanoch I think that is a very sensible approach. Although I am an atheist myself...

 



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