Matthew and Luke say NO RAPTURE 2071

I agree. And there is strong evidence of that.

I cannot agree with that. It may be true, mind you, that he first wrote a Hebrew version. But that cannot be proved and the logic of his writing it in Hebrew because he was a Jewish tax collector is, frankly, irrelevant. John, for example, was a Jew. Yet his Gospel was written in Greek, as was Revelation.

Now we may venture to speculate that since John most definitely wrote his Gospel to Gentiles, which can be quite easily proved, that he wrote it in Greek because of that and that Matthew most definitely wrote his Gospel in Hebrew, because he was writing to Jews. This would be a rather good speculation, but a speculation none-the-less and we cannot say for sure that it was written to Jews in their own land and we must bear in mind, that many Jews throughout the Dispersion, did not even speak Hebrew anymore.

So again, it is a worthwhile speculation, but it is a speculation. :) To state it with such surety, without solid evidence, seems to me, to be contrary to a proper investigative atbreastude, not withstanding your wonderful observations.

No offense, just an observation of my own. :)

It was most definitely written at least that early and I would venture to say, probably a bit earlier.

Also, it is not proved that Luke was a doctor. Nowhere does he say that he is and it is merely tradition that he was a physician. It is also however, again, a good speculation, given what seems to be a knowledge of medicine in his accounts.

Absolutely true! People today make sure to remain as ignorant as possible about only one collection of writings and make sure to throw out all of the rules of textual criticism (the science) about only one set of documents and they are those which comprise the Bible. They seem bent on this, since, if the documents are true, they are the ones that tell us that we are not good and that we are on a collision course with damnation and hey, who wants to hear that? :)

The fact is, that the separate Gospels are evidence of their validity and the Bible is not, as you said, one writing, but simply a set of writings, gathered and placed between a set of covers. Would they treat any other collection of writings this way? Of course not. (:

And he addressed it to a specific person, as (like you said), an orderly account of what happened. And he said that he investigated it carefully and that he wrote it to Theopholis, so that he (Theopholis) could be sure of what he had heard.

Thanks for your comments. :)

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"Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pbutt, till all these things be fulfilled." - Matthew 24:34

"Let your moderation be known unto all men. The Lord is AT HAND" - Philippians 4:5